Let $p\in\Bbb{Z}[i]$ be an irreducible element. Prove that for any positive integer $n\ge0$ the ideal $(p^{n+1})$ is an ideal in $(p^{n})$, and prove that multiplication by $p^n$ induces a isomorphism (defined above) between $\Bbb{Z}[i]/(p)$ and $(p^n)/(p^{n+1})$ as additive abelian groups
What I thought , was that $\Bbb{Z}[i]/(p)$ will be isomorphic to a field with $p^2$ elements.So if I define an isomorphism $$\phi:\ \Bbb{Z}[i]\ \longrightarrow\ \Bbb{Z}[i]/(p),$$ where the kernel is the ideal $(p)$ and the other elements are going to be $(c+id )+(p)$ where $0\le c,d \le (p-1)$ .
Now $(p^n)= p^n\Bbb{Z}[i]$ and $(p^{n+1}) = p^{n+1}\Bbb{Z}[i]$. Now $(p^{n+1}) $ is going to be a subring of $(p^n)$ and if we define an isomorphism $\sigma:(p^n)-> (p^n)/(p^{n+1})$.Here the kernel will be $(p^n)$ and the other elements will be $(a+ib)p^n$ where $0\le a,b \le (p-1)$.I will probably need to show that this mapping is isomorphic to a field of size $p^2$
So this is what I have tried to do precisely.This is a question from Dummit and Foote (pg-293 Q-7(a)) .What I did not understand is what does multiplication by $p^n$ mean . Instead of writing a complete answer I would recommend some hints .
There are a few problems with what you have written:
I will rephrase the original question from the book to be more explicit, in hopes of clarifying what it asks: