Let $X$ be a vector space over the field $K$ of the real or complex numbers. Let $X^*$ denote the vector space of all linear functionals defined on $X$, and let $X^{**}$ denote the vector space of all linear functionals defined on $X^*$.
Let $x \in X$ be fixed, and let $g_x \colon X^* \to X^{**}$ be defined as $$g_x(f) \colon= f(x) \; \; \; \forall f \in X^*.$$ Then $g_x$ is a linear functional on $X^*$ so that $g_x \in X^{**}$.
Then the mapping $C \colon X \to X^{**}$ defined by $$Cx \colon= g_x \; \; \; \forall x \in X$$ is linear.
But Kryszeg states that this map $C$ is also injective. How to show this?
My work:
Suppose that, for some $x$, $y \in X$, we have the equality $$Cx = Cy.$$ Then $$g_x = g_y.$$ So, for all $f \in X^*$, we have $$g_x(f) = g_y(f).$$ This implies that $f(x) = f(y)$ and so $x-y \in N(f)$ for all linear functionals $f$ defined on $X$, where $N(f)$ denotes the null space of $f$.
What next? How to show that $x = y$, especially in the case when $X$ is not finite-dimensional?
This has nothing to do with functional analysis.
If $ v\neq 0$ there always exist a functional $ f:X\to K $ such that $ f (v)\neq 0$: complete $ v $ to a basis $\mathcal{B}$ of $ X $ (as a vector space) and define $ f $ by declaring that $ f (v):=1$ and, for any $w\in \mathcal{B}\setminus\{v\} $, $f(w):=0$.
Choosing in particular $ v:=x-y $ this shows that $ v=0$, i.e. $ x=y $.