I am trying to solve a problem from this website that asks the following:
Prove that, for a sequence of holomorphic functions on a compact set, convergence in $L^2$ implies uniform convergence.
I am struggling with how to relate the $L^2$ norm to the fact that the functions are holomorphic. There is also a related question, which asks if the space of square-integrable holomorphic functions on a bounded region $U\subseteq\mathbb C$ is a Banach space. This seems like it would follow from showing that a sequence of functions that is "$L^2$-Cauchy" is uniformly Cauchy, but I'm not sure.
\begin{align*} |f_{n}(w)-f_{m}(w)|&=\left|\dfrac{1}{2\pi i}\displaystyle\int_{\gamma}\dfrac{f_{n}(z)-f_{m}(z)}{z-w}dz\right|\\ &\leq\dfrac{1}{2\pi}\left(\displaystyle\int_{\gamma}|f_{n}(z)-f_{m}(z)|^{2}|dz|\right)^{1/2}\left(\displaystyle\int_{\gamma}\dfrac{1}{|z-w|^{2}}|dz|\right)^{1/2}, \end{align*} where we can choose $\gamma$ to be the boundary of a closed ball $B_{M}(0)$ such that the compact $K$ in question satisfies $K\subseteq B_{M/2}(0)$, then the term $\displaystyle\int_{\gamma}\dfrac{1}{|z-w|^{2}}|dz|$ can be controlled uniformly on $w\in K$.