suppose we have:
$$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x \in \mathbb{Q} \\ -1 & x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb Q \end{cases} $$
It seems to me that while $f$ is not integrable, $f^2(x) = 1$ is integrable. Am I wrong about $f$ being not integrable?
suppose we have:
$$ f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x \in \mathbb{Q} \\ -1 & x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb Q \end{cases} $$
It seems to me that while $f$ is not integrable, $f^2(x) = 1$ is integrable. Am I wrong about $f$ being not integrable?
On
On the real line, its not hard to construct $L^2$ functions which are not $L^1$ and vice versa (on most spaces, $L^p$ spaces don't nest -- exceptions include things like $\ell^p$ spaces, or on compact intervals).
$f(x) = \begin{cases} 1/x & x>1 \\ 0 & o.w. \end{cases}$ is in $L^2$ but not in $L^1$.
$f(x) = \begin{cases} 1/\sqrt{x} & 0<x<1 \\ 0 & o.w. \end{cases}$ is in $L^1$ but not in $L^2$.
The function you have is not in $L^1(\mathbb{R})$ or $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ -- you need $\int_\mathbb{R} |f|^p < \infty$ for it to be in $L^p$. For $p=1,2$, that integral is infinite.
Why do you think that $f^2=1$ is integrable?
$\int_R f^2=\int_R1=\infty$