I am reading DF's proof of Lagrange's theorem that the order of a subgroup divides the order of a group.
The part where I cannot follow is when they say that :
The set of left cosets of H in G partition G (I can see this).
Bythe definition of a left coset the map:
$H \rightarrow gH$ defined by $h \mapsto gh$ is a surjection from H to the left coset gH (this I cannot see clearly) but I know the definition of a left coset is that you take all elements of G and multiply on the subgroup H on the left side
Injective since $gh_{1}=gh_{2} \implies h_{1}=h_{2}$
Then they conclude that H and gH have the same order I guess this is because we can see now it is bijective?
My question here is about the Surjectiveness, how can I see that? and my other question is what excatly are they doing when showing injectiveness are they just looking on the element map? \mapsto
Having looked at your post and flipped to the proof from Dummit and Foote that you're talking about, I have a hunch that you're getting hung up on the notation. That being said, perhaps it will help to rephrase the major points.
For any element $g \in G$, we can define the left-coset map $$ \phi_g : H \to gH\\ \phi_g(h) = gh $$ The image of this map is $$ \phi_g(H) = \{\phi_g(h) : h \in H\} = \{gh: h \in H\} $$ so that, by the definition of a left coset, $\phi_g(H) = gH$. In other words, the map $\phi_g$ is surjective.
Now, try to use the left-cancellation law to show that $\phi_g$ is injective.