In $(\lambda x.yx)$ y is free.
How about in $(\lambda x.xy)$ is y bound here? Some googling I've found that y is actually free, but isn't y in the scope of $\lambda x$?
Thanks!
In $(\lambda x.yx)$ y is free.
How about in $(\lambda x.xy)$ is y bound here? Some googling I've found that y is actually free, but isn't y in the scope of $\lambda x$?
Thanks!
On
$y$ is in the scope of $\lambda x$ in both terms, but not bound by it. A variable can only be bound by an abstraction of the same variable. $y$ can only be bound by $\lambda y$, not by $\lambda x$.
On
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For the sake of completeness, a variable $x$ is free in a $\lambda$-term $M$ if $x$ is not in the scope of a $\lambda x$; otherwise, $x$ occurs bound.
It is usual to inductively define $\operatorname{FV}(M)$, the set of free variables in $M$ as:
$\operatorname{FV}(x) = \{x\}$
the norm is to be free
$\operatorname{FV}(\abstraction{x}{M}) = \operatorname{FV}(M) - \{x\}$
an abstraction bounds exactly the variable it abstracts and nothing else
$\operatorname{FV}(\application{M}{N}) = \operatorname{FV}(M) \cup \operatorname{FV}(N)$
keep inspecting the subterms
Things may get eccentric, for instance, in $({\abstraction{y}{x y}})(y)$, $x$ is free, the $y$ on the left parenthesized term is bounded, and the last (rightmost) $y$ is free. I often prefer to index the variables to avoid confusion, but this also comes with its annoyances.
If $f(x)=x^n$ we can clearly see that
nis free variable.We can think of this as $\lambda x.fxn$ and
xis bound butfandnare free.So in the main question $\lambda x.xy$,
yis clearly free.