Above is the first part of proof Theorem 7.3, Lang's Algebra, p41.
Why could we apply Lemma 7.2? Isn't this only a consequence of this line? (Which was stated after application?)
Since $f(B)$ is either $0$ or infinite cyclic...$B$ is free.
EDIT: I clarified question a bit.


The free group on the empty set is $0$.
The free group on $\{g\}$ is the infinite cyclic group generated by $g$.
So in both cases considered $f(B)$ is free.
So $B_1$ is isomorphic to a restricted direct sum of copies of the group of integers because it is free by induction and abelian. Furthermore $\mathbb{Z}_1$ is not induced in this decomposition.
On the other hand $f(B)=C_1$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_1$ or $\{0\}$, so $B$ is isomorphic to a direct sum of copies of the group of integers, so $B$ is free.