Lang's Theorem 7.3 wording, what does he mean?

168 Views Asked by At

enter image description here

enter image description here


Above is the first part of proof Theorem 7.3, Lang's Algebra, p41.

Why could we apply Lemma 7.2? Isn't this only a consequence of this line? (Which was stated after application?)

Since $f(B)$ is either $0$ or infinite cyclic...$B$ is free.

EDIT: I clarified question a bit.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

7
On

The free group on the empty set is $0$.
The free group on $\{g\}$ is the infinite cyclic group generated by $g$.

So in both cases considered $f(B)$ is free.

So $B_1$ is isomorphic to a restricted direct sum of copies of the group of integers because it is free by induction and abelian. Furthermore $\mathbb{Z}_1$ is not induced in this decomposition.

On the other hand $f(B)=C_1$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}_1$ or $\{0\}$, so $B$ is isomorphic to a direct sum of copies of the group of integers, so $B$ is free.