Consider the integral \begin{equation} I(x)=\int^{2}_{0} (1+t) \exp\left(x\cos\left(\frac{\pi(t-1)}{2}\right)\right) dt \end{equation} Use Laplace's Method to show that \begin{equation} I(x) \sim \frac{4\sqrt{2}e^{x}}{\sqrt{\pi x}} \end{equation} as $x\rightarrow\infty$.
=> I have tried using the expansion of $I(x)$ in McLaurin series but did not get the answer. here, \begin{equation} h(t)=cos(\frac{\pi(t-1)}{2}) \end{equation} $h(0)= 0$
$h'(0)= \frac {\pi}{2}$
Also $f(t)= (1+t) \approx f(0) =1$, so that
\begin{equation} I(x)\sim \int^{\delta}_{0} e^{x \frac{\pi}{2}t} dt \end{equation}
after that I tried doing integration by substitution $\tau = x \frac{\pi}{2} t$ but did not get the answer.
please help me.
Hint:
Where does $h(t)$ achieve its maximum?