The question I had was
Find the Laplace transform of $$f(t)=10e^{-200t}u(t).$$
Would it be correct to take out the 10 because it is a constant, find the Laplace transform of $e^{-200t}$ and then multiply it by the Laplace transform of $u(t)$ to obtain a final answer of : $$10\left(\frac{1}{s+200}\right)\left(\frac{1}{s}\right)?$$ The $u(t)$ is what is really confusing me in this problem.
Yes, you can move the 10 out, but no, you cannot proceed as you do. Independent of your definition of Laplace transform (whole $\mathbb R$ or just $\mathbb R^+$ as domain of integration in the first step), you will find $$ (\mathcal L f)(s)=\int 10e^{-200t}u(t)e^{-st}\,dt=10\int_0^{+\infty}e^{-(200+s)t}\,dt=\frac{10}{s+200}. $$ As an alternative, you could also use rules for the Laplace transform: first that $\mathcal L u=1/s$ and that multiplication with the exponential shifts it, $1/(s+200)$ and that the multiplication of constant 10 just multiplies (since the Laplace transform is a linear operator), $10/(s+200)$.