For an exercise I want to show that $\lambda((a,b))=\lambda((a,b])$ where I write $(a,b) = (a_1,b_1)\times(a_2,b_2)\times\dots\times(a_d,b_d)$ and $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue measure on $\mathscr{B}(\mathbb{R^d})$. I tried using a theorem that we proved earlier.
Let $A_n = (a,b_n]$ with $b_n=(b_1-\frac{1}{n},b_2-\frac{1}{n},\dots,b_d-\frac{1}n)$ so that $A_n\uparrow(a,b)$. Using the theorem we would find $$\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\prod\limits_{k=1}^d\left(b_1-a_1-\frac{1}{n}\right)=\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\lambda(A_n)=\lambda((a,b)).$$
This is almost equal to what we want, but we have that nasty fraction in the product. How can I justify saying the product is equal to $\lambda((a,b])$? Just for clarification, we have as definition: $$\lambda((a,b])=\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}\prod\limits_{k=1}^d(b_1-a_1).$$
So $(b_{k}-a_{k}-1/n)\rightarrow b_{k}-a_{k}$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$. Apply successively the product rule of limits: $(b_{1}-a_{1}-1/n)(b_{2}-a_{2}-1/n)\rightarrow(b_{1}-a_{1})(b_{2}-a_{2})$, do it in this way up to $d$, we get $(b_{1}-a_{1}-1/n)\cdots(b_{d}-a_{d}-1/n)\rightarrow(b_{1}-a_{1})\cdots(b_{d}-a_{d})$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$.