Here's the full problem:
Let the collection of measurable sets $\{E_k\}_{k=1}^{2014} \subset [0,1]$ be s.t $\sum_{k=1}^{2014} m(E_k) >2013$, where $m$ denotes Lebesgue measure. Show $$m(\cap_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)>0$$
Here is what I've been thinking:
We can deduce that $$1\geq m(\cup_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)>0$$ since the sum of the measures are so large
From this information though, I've no idea really where to go. I mean, we know that since the value is so large from the sum of the measures of our E's, there must be some overlap when intersecting our sets, which in turn would mean the arbitrary intersection is non-zero, but formally showing this has been very difficult for me. If anyone could give some aid, I'd be very grateful.
Note that$$m([0,1]\setminus\bigcap_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)=m(\bigcup_{k=1}^{2014}([0,1]\setminus E_k))$$and $$\sum_{k=1}^{2014}m([0,1]\setminus E_k)=2014-\sum_{k=1}^{2014}m(E_k)<1,$$it follows that $$m([0,1]\setminus\bigcap_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)=m(\bigcup_{k=1}^{2014}([0,1]\setminus E_k))\leqslant \sum_{k=1}^{2014}m([0,1]\setminus E_k)<1.$$Hence $$m(\bigcap_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)=1-m([0,1]\setminus\bigcap_{k=1}^{2014} E_k)>0.$$