I'm self-studying calculus from Larson's Calculus 8E and on page 102 and I don't understand why
$$\lim_{x\to 0^-} \frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x-0} = \frac{\lfloor\lfloor x\rfloor\rfloor - 0}{x} = \infty $$
and
$$\lim_{x\to 0^+} \frac{f(x) - f(0)}{x-0} = \frac{\lfloor\lfloor x\rfloor\rfloor- 0}{x} = 0 $$
Why isn't the first limit 0? Why is the second limit not $\infty$?
Well, $\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\frac{-1}{x}$ for $x<0$ and $\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=0$ for $x>0$.
Can you take it from here?