I was given this problem in a physics class, and below is the answer by the professor. ($x$ is position, $v=\dot x$ is velocity, $a=\dot v=\ddot x$ acceleration).
Let $a=2x$. If $v$ is $0$ when $x=1$. Find $v$ when $x=3$.
Professor's answer:
We can rewrite $a=\frac {dv}{dt}=\frac{dv}{dx}\cdot\frac{dx}{dt}=\frac {dv}{dx}v(t)$, thus $$\frac {dv}{dx}v(t)=2x\iff vdv=2xdx\iff \int_0^vvdv=2\int_1^3xdx\iff \frac{v^2(3)}2=8\\ \therefore v(3)=\pm2$$
I belive this answer is an atrocity: He allegedly arrived at the correct answer, but I have no idea why: Besides the horrendous differential 'tricks', why can he integrate on one side from "$ 0$ to $v$" and on the other from "$0$ to $3$"?
Is there anyway to solve this in a mathematically correct manner (I really don't want to use the differential thing he's doing).
I tried to solve this solving the DE $\ddot x = 2x$, getting $x=ce^{\sqrt 2 t}+de^{-\sqrt 2 t}$, but I think the initial condition given is insufficient to determine $c,d$.
Normally those integrations are done with indeterminate boundaries, so
$\int v.dv = \int 2x.dx$
$\implies v^2/2 + c = x^2$, where c is a constant. Then we put the initial condition $v = 0$ at $x=1$.
Then $c = 1$ and we have $v^2/2 = x^2 - 1$
Setting $x = 3$, $v(3)^2/2 = 8 \implies v(3) = \pm 4$