My attempt:
Define $g: [0,a] \to R$ as $g(x) = f({x\over a})$. Moreover, let P = {$0,1$} and Q = {$0,a$}. Since $f$ is integrable, it follows that for any $\epsilon >0 \space $ $U(f, P) - L(f,P) < {\epsilon\over a}$. Notice that $\forall x \in [0,a] \exists y\in[0,1] g(x) = f(x)$. Hence, $sup_{x\in [0,a]} g(x) = sup_{x\in [0,1]} f(x)$ and $inf_{x\in [0,a]} g(x) = inf_{x\in [0,1]} f(x)$. So, we have that $U(g,Q) - L(g,Q) = (U(f,P) - L(f,P))a < {\epsilon \over a}a = \epsilon$.
Is this proof correct? Particularly, am I allowed to pick an explicit partition for $f$?
EDIT: If this proof is correct, can someone show a better way to prove this result?
Thanks.
No, your proof is not correct. Given $\varepsilon>0$, you have no reason to assert that, if you take $P=\{0,1\}$, then $U(f,P)-L(f,P)<\frac\varepsilon a$. For instance, take $f(x)=x$, $a=1$ and $\varepsilon=\frac1{10}$.