let $f:A \to \mathbb{R}$ be a function that $A \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ . let $x_0$ arbitrary, $$x_{n+1}=f(x_n) \ \ \ :n \in \mathbb{N}$$
now my question : when $\left( x_n \right)_{n\in \mathbb{R}}$ is converge ? Do have to Always $A=\mathbb{R}$ and $f$ be a function which is differentiable on $\mathbb{R}$ ?
At least, you should take $A$ such that $f(A)\subset A$. Then, if $x_1\in A$, $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ will be a sequence of elements of $A$.
Even if $f$ is differentiable, you cannot be sure that $(x_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges. For instance, take $A=[-1,1]$, $f(x)=-x$ and $x_1=-1$. Then $(\forall n\in\mathbb{N}):x_n=(-1)^n$ and the sequence $\bigl((-1)^n\bigr)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ does not converge.