Let $f$ be analytic in $D(0,2)$. Assume that for all $n∈\mathbb{N}$ $\int_{ |z|=1} {f(z)\over(n+1)z−1}dz=0$. Prove that $f(z)=0$ for all $z∈D(0,2)$.

Question

Let $f$ be analytic in $D(0,2)$. Assume that for all $n∈\mathbb{N}$ $\int_{ |z|=1} {f(z)\over(n+1)z−1}dz=0$. Prove that $f(z)=0$ for all $z∈D(0,2)$.

I'm thinking about a contradiction proof. Assuming that $f(z)$ doesn't not equal zero and contradicting the assumption. I'm not sure though. Any solutions or hints are greatly appreciated.

Answer 1

Hint: Look what is it $f(\frac{1}{n+1})$ by Cauchy's integral formula.