I tried to prove it by the definition of absolutely continouse:
Let $\{(a_i,b_i)\}_{i=0}^n$ be disjoint sub-interval on $[a,b]$
By Reimenn integral,
$\int_a^bf'(x)dx = \sum_{i=0}^nf'(t_i)(b_i-a_i)$ ,for any $t_i \in[a_i,b_i]$
Since f is differentiable, there exist $c_i\in[a_i,b_i] $ such that $\frac{f(b_i)-f(a_i)}{b_i-a_i} = f'(c_i)$ ......
And then I think I am on the wrong direction. What else can I know from $\int_a^bf'(x)dx = f(b)-f(a)$
Help me please
Extend $f$ to be $f(a)$ for $x\leq a$ and $f(b)$ for $x\geq b$. Since $f$ is increasing, for every $h>0$ we have% \begin{align*} \int_{a}^{b}\frac{f(x+\frac{1}{n})-f(x)}{\frac{1}{n}}\,dx & =n{\biggl \{}% \int_{b}^{b+\frac{1}{n}}f(x)\,dx-\int_{a}^{a+\frac{1}{n}}f(x)\,dx{\biggr \}}\\ & \leq n\frac{f(b)-f(a)}{n}=f(b)-f(a). \end{align*} It follows from Fatou's lemma, that $$ 0\leq\int_{a}^{b}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx\leq\liminf_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int_{a}% ^{b}\frac{f(x+\frac{1}{n})-f(x)}{\frac{1}{n}}\,dx\leq f(b)-f(a). $$ With the same proof if $a<y<b$ you get \begin{align*} \int_{a}^{y}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx & \leq f(y)-f(a),\\ \int_{y}^{b}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx & \leq f(b)-f(y). \end{align*} Adding these two inequalities gives $$ \int_{a}^{y}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx+\int_{y}^{b}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx\leq f(y)-f(a)+f(b)-f(y)=f(b)-f(a). $$ Since by hypothesis $\int_{a}^{b}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx=f(b)-f(a)$, it follows that both inequalities must be equalities, that is, $$ f(y)=f(a)+\int_{a}^{y}f^{\prime}(x)\,dx $$ for every $y\in\lbrack a,b]$. Now you need to prove that if $g\geq0$ is integrable, then the function $$ h(y)=\int_{a}^{y}g(x)\,dx $$ is absolutely continuous.