I understand that Fermat's Little Theorem is crucial here, but I am not sure how to tie the whole thing together...
Observe: If $f(a) \equiv 0$ then $a^p - a \equiv 0$ for $a \in \mathbb{Z}_p$ $\implies a^p \equiv a\mod p$
So, proof: Since $p$ is prime, then $a^p \equiv a\mod p$ $\implies a^p - a \equiv 0 \mod p$ $\implies f(a) \equiv 0$ for $a \in \mathbb{Z}_p$.
Is this enough or am I incorrectly assuming something?