Let $f(x+iy) = u(x,y) + iv(x,y)$ be a holomorphic function on $\Omega \subset \mathbb{C}$, where $u\cdot v = 1$. Prove that $f$ must be a constant function.
I take for granted that $ u'_x = u'_y = v'_x = v'_y = 0$ means the function is constant (I'm not entirely sure about this).
Since $f$ is holomorphic, it's true that $$u'_x = v'_y$$ $$u'_y = -v'_x$$
Since $u(x,y) = \frac{1}{v(x,y)}$ we get $$u'_x = -\frac{v'_x}{v(x,y)^2},$$ and similarily $$v'_y = -\frac{u'_y}{u(x,y)^2}.$$ Substituting $u'_x, v'_y$ in the the Cauchy-Riemann equation nets $$-\frac{v'_x}{v(x,y)^2} = -\frac{u'_y}{u(x,y)^2}$$ $$u(x,y)^2v'_x=u'_yv(x,y)^2$$ $$u(x,y)^2v'_x=-v'_xv(x,y)^2$$ Dividing by $v'_x$ gives us the impossible equation $$u(x,y)^2=-v(x,y)^2$$ ($u^2$ cannot be negative), which must mean we performed an illegal operation and the only possibility is that $v'_x = 0$. This directly implies that $u'_y = 0$ from the Cauchy-Riemann equations. And setting these to zero in the first equations gives $u'_x = v'_y = 0$
Thus, $u'_x = u'_y = v'_x = v'_y = 0$ which means f is constant.
Is there anything wrong with my proof, and is there an easier way to do it?
From $u\cdot v={1\over2}{\rm Im}(f^2)$ it follows that the holomorphic function $f^2$ has constant imaginary part. This implies that $f$, being continuous, is locally constant, hence constant.