Hey so i tried this but i dont really know if its correct. I need some suggestions.
Let $G$ be $\{e,a,b,c\}$ Let's assume $G$ is not abelian.
This means there exist $a,b$ such that $ab\neq ba$.
We can choose 2 elements $a, b$ who are not inverse to each other.
We know that $(ab≠b \land ab≠e \land ab≠a) \implies ab=c$; we also know that $(ba≠b \land ba≠e \land ba≠a \land ab≠ba) \implies ba=d$ which is a contradiction to our assumption that G had 4 elements.
Is this proof legit ?
If $a\in G$ has order 4. done, if not there exists $a\neq b$ of order 2 and $a\neq b^{-1}$. We have $ab\neq a$ otherwise $a^{-1}(ab)=1=b$, you also have $ab\neq b$. The group is $\{1,a,b,ab\}$, but $ba\neq a, ba\neq b$, so $ba=ab$.