I’m studying internal direct products of groups. And I’ve seen that an assumption $N_i \cap N_j = \langle e \rangle$ is always assumed when a statement involves something like $G \simeq \prod^w N_i$. So I want to know the sufficient conditions for $G \simeq \prod^w N_i$.
Let $G \simeq N_1 \times N_2$ while $N_i$ are normal subgroups of $G$.
Does $N_1 \cap N_2 = \langle e \rangle$ or $G = N_1N_2$ hold?
Since $N_1 \times N_2 \simeq N_1 N_2$ by an isomorphism $\phi (n_1, n_2) = n_1 n_2$, I can easily show $G \simeq N_1 N_2$.
But does it follow that $G = N_1N_2$?
This is my first time in group theory. So my question can be quite elementary. Thank you in advance.
I think that the result is not true.
For example, take $G=V=\{e,a,b,ab\}$, the Klein $4$-group, and $N_1=N_2=\langle a\rangle$
Then $G\cong \Bbb{Z}_2\times \Bbb{Z}_2\cong N_1\times N_2$.
But clearly $G\neq N_1N_2$ and $N_1\cap N_2\neq \{e\}$.