Let $G$ be a group and $H$ be a normal subgroup of index $p$ (a prime); suppose $K$ is a subgroup of $G$ not contained in $H$, then is it true that $G=HK$?
I know that the fact is true if $p=2$, but I don't know for the general case.
Let $G$ be a group and $H$ be a normal subgroup of index $p$ (a prime); suppose $K$ is a subgroup of $G$ not contained in $H$, then is it true that $G=HK$?
I know that the fact is true if $p=2$, but I don't know for the general case.
By Lagrange's,
$$[G : HK][HK:H] = [G:H] = p.$$
Since $K \not\subset H$, $[HK:H] > 1$ implies $[HK:H] = p,$ so $[G:HK] = 1$ implies $G = HK$.