I would to like to ask two questions in line 3 of the given proof of the proposition.
My first question would be how does $Q\circ j = j$ imply image of $Q = j(X^*)$. The image of $Q$ equals to $Q(X^{***})$ but I couldn't find such a equality which links $X^*$ and $X^{***}$ together.
My second question would be how could I prove that image of $Q = X^*$ if the image of $Q = j(X^*)$.
Any hints or help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.

For your first question, $Q\circ j=j$ seems useless. Just say$$Q(X^{***})=j\circ i^*(X^{***})=j(X^*),$$the last equality being due to the fact that $i^*$ is onto since $i^*\circ j=Id_{X^*}$ (or: since $i$ is 1-to-1).
For your second question, the author just makes his original sentence more correct when he replaces his (invalid) ${\rm im}(Q)=X^*$ by his (correct) ${\rm im}(Q)=j(X^*)$. His first rough formulation was motivated by the fact that $j$ is an embedding.
And here is my answer to Surb's new question (in the comments below, about $i^*\circ j=Id_{X^*}$):