I'm trying to use this in a different proof (describing all the subgroups of $\mathbb{Z}_n$), but everything I've thought of breaks at some point.
2026-05-16 21:50:22.1778968222
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Let $K$ be a subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}_n$. How do I prove that there exists $\bar{m} \in K$ such that $m\mid n$?
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The statement is not true. Consider the subgroup $K$ of $\mathbb{Z}_4$ generated by $\bar{2}$. Then $1\mid 4$ but $\bar{1}\notin K$. Also, you cannot say that $m\in \mathbb{Z}_k$ if $m$ is just a number! Elements of $\mathbb{Z}_k$ are equivalences classes. People tend to get more sloppy with notation as they understand more things but don't be sloppy at the beginning, it might slow down your learning process.
Hint Pick the smallest positive integer $k \in \mathbb Z$ such that $\bar{k} \in K$.
By long division you have $$n=q \cdot k +r$$
Use this relation to conclude that $\bar{r} \in K$.