I know that a proof for infinitely many primes has everything to do with Euclid's proof. For example, there are infinitely many primes $p\equiv 1 \mod 4$, or even $1\mod q$, is something I know how to do. But how to show it is $\textit{not}$ equivalent to $1 \mod q$?
Hope someone can help!
Assume otherwise and let $p_1,\ldots,p_n$ be the complete list of primes that are $\not\equiv 1\pmod q$. Let $N=p_1\cdots p_n$ be the product of these primes. Then $N\pm 1$ is not divisible by any $p_i$, hence is the product of primes $\equiv 1\pmod q$ only, hence $N\pm 1\equiv 1\pmod q$ and so $2=(N+1)-(N-1)\equiv 0\pmod q$.