I know that if (x)={0} then the if 0=r0 such that r belongs to R therefor it's a field. Most likely I'm wrong but I need help with the second part if the ideal is R
2026-05-05 09:18:54.1777972734
Let R be an integral domain. Show that if the only ideals in R are {0} and R itself, R must be a field
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Hint: if every nonzero ideal of $R$ is $R$, then every nonzero ideal contains $1$.