Let $S$ a non-empty set, $(A,+,\cdot)$ a ring and $f:S\to A$ a bijection. To $x,y\in S$, we define the operations this way:
$x*y=f^{-1}(f(x)+f(y))$ and $x\,\Delta\,y=f^{-1}(f(x)f(y))$.
Verify that $(S,*,\Delta)$ is a ring.
I'm having trouble to deal with those functions inverted.
In the association's proof, we have $(x*y)*z=[f^{-1}(f(x)+f(y)]*z=f^{-1}(f^{-1}(f(x)+f(y))+f(z))$
and
$x*(y*z)=x*[f^{-1}(f(y)+f(z))]=f^{-1}(f(x)+f^{-1}(f(y)+f(z)))$
So, I think I need to show that $$f^{-1}(f^{-1}(f(x)+f(y))+f(z))=f^{-1}(f(x)+f^{-1}(f(y)+f(z)))$$ and i don't know how to do it.
Could you guys give me a hint?