Let $\sim$ be the relation on $\mathbb R^2$ defined by: $$(x_1, y_1) ∼ (x_2, y_2) \iff x_1^2 + y_1^2=x_2^2+y_2^2$$ Show that $\sim$ is an equivalence relation on $\mathbb R^2$.
Consider the function $f \colon [0, \infty) \to \mathbb R^2/ \sim$ defined by $f(x) = [(x, 0)]$ $\forall x \in [0, \infty)$. Show that $f$ is bijective.
I have shown it is an equivalence relation and that $f$ is injective but I am now stuck on proving it is surjective. I really am not sure how to begin because it seems obvious it is true? Any hints appreciated
It is easy to see that the given relation is injective.
For surjectivity, you are supposed to show that for every $[(a,b)] \in \mathbb{R}^2/\sim$, we have that $[(a,b)] = f(x)$ for some $x$.
This is very easy to see: let $x = \sqrt{a^2 + b^2}$. Then, note that $(x,0) \sim (a,b)$, since $x^2 + 0^2 = a^2 + b^2$. Hence, $f(x) = [(x,0)] = [(a,b)]$ as $(x,0) \sim (a,b)$.
Hence, with surjectivity and injectivity done, you can say that $f$ is bijective.
Alternately, you can define an inverse function $g : (\mathbb{R}^2/\sim) \to [0,\infty)$, by $g([a,b]) = \sqrt{a^2+b^2}$.
Note that $g \circ f(x) = g([(x,0)]) = \sqrt{x^2 + 0^2} = x$ for all $x \in [0,\infty)$.
Further, $f \circ g([(a,b)]) = f(\sqrt{a^2+b^2}) = [(\sqrt{a^2+b^2},0)] = [(a,b)]$ as $(\sqrt{a^2+b^2},0) \sim (a,b)$.
Hence, $f \circ g$ and $g \circ f$ are both the identity, hence $g$ is a well defined inverse of $f$, hence $f$ is bijective.