Let $T$ be a theory over $S$, prove that $T \vdash \{\phi \rightarrow \psi \} \iff (T \cup \phi) \vdash \psi$.
So this seems very obvious intuitively. I'm just not sure what is the 'technique' to rigorously prove such propositions. Any assistance (hints) will be very appreciated!
$(T \cup \phi) \vdash \phi \to \psi$ by the monotonicity rule and obviously $(T \cup \phi) \vdash \phi$. So by modus ponens, $(T \cup \phi) \vdash \psi$. But if you are not allowed to use the modus ponens, only some kind of calculus, here is the proof with Gentzen-type calculus :
\begin{gather*} (T \cup \phi \cup \neg\psi) \vdash \phi \wedge \neg\psi \text{ (obvious)}\\ T \vdash \phi \to \psi = \neg(\phi \wedge \neg \psi)\text{ (by hypthesis)} \\ (T \cup \phi \cup \neg\psi) \vdash \neg(\phi \wedge \neg \psi)\text{ (monotonicity)}\\ (T \cup \phi \cup \neg\psi) \vdash \psi\text{ (an inconsistent theory entails anything)}\\ (T \cup \phi \cup \psi) \vdash \psi \text{ (obvious)} \\ (T \cup \phi) \vdash \psi\text{ (elimination of the term that doesn't affect the result)} \end{gather*}
The strategy the other way round is similar, but longer.