Let $V$ a vector space over a field $F$. Let $U_1$ and $U_2$ subvector spaces of $V$. Prove or disprove that $U_1\cup U_2$ is a subvector space aswell.
Consider $V=\mathbb R^2$, $U_1=$span$((0,1)^T)$, $U_2=$span$(1,0)^T$. Then $U_1\cup U_2$ is not closed under addition because $(0,1)^T,(1,0)^t\in U_1\cup U_2$, but $(0,1)^T+(1,0)^T=(1,1)^T \notin U_1\cup U_2$.
I do not understand this solution. Here $U_1\cup U_2=\mathbb R^2$ and clearly $(1,1)^T\in \mathbb R^2$. Could someone explain this to me?
you claim that $$(1,1)^T\in U_1 \cup U_2.$$
What would that mean? It would mean that either
by definition of the union. But both cases are not true. Hence $(1,1)^T\notin U_1 \cup U_2$.