Let $v$ be a valuation of DVR of character 0. Let $p$ be a prime.
I would like to prove
If $v(p)>0$, then for all $q≠p$, $v(q)=0$.
If $v$ is usual $p$-adic order, this is trivial. But I want to check this in general valuation of DVR.
I may not need assumption valuation of DVR, may be arbitrary valuation of valuation ring.
OP's question is poorly worded but the point is to assume that $ap+qb=1$ for some $a,b,p,q$ in a DVR.
If $v(p)>0$ then $v(q)=0$ because otherwise we'd have $v(1)>0$.