$(a)$ Let $V$ be a vector space and let $M \subseteq V$, $v \in V\setminus M$, $M$ linearly independent Then: $M \cup {v}$ is linearly independent if and only if $v \notin [M]$.
$(b)$ Let $V$ be a vector space, and let $E ⊆ V$, $v ∈ V\setminus E$, and $[E∪{v}] = V$ Then: $[E] = V$ if and only if $v ∈ [E]$.
For the first example I understand that if v was an element of $[M]$ there would be two of the sets ${v}$ in the union and they would be linearly dependent because we could subtract them from each other so the condition for linear independence wouldn't be met.
You are correct about part $a$. For the first direction, if $M\cup \{v\}$ is linearly independent, then $v\notin \text{span(M)}$(it is more common to write span$(A)$ to denote the set of all linear combinations of the elements of $A$ rather than square brackets) as if that were the case, then we could write $v$ as a linear combination of the elements of $M$ and thus $M\cup \{v\}$ won't be linearly independent.
For the other direction, suppose that $v\notin \text{span}(M)$(this also implies that $v\ne 0$). Consider the elements $v_1,\dots,v_k,v$ of $M\cup \{v\}$. Let $a_1,\dots,a_{k+1}$ be scalars such that $$a_1v_1+\dots+a_{k+1}v=0$$ Because $v$ is not in the span of $M$ and the vectors $v_1,\dots,v_k$ are linearly independent, we have that $a_1=\dots=a_{k+1}=0$ and thus $M\cup \{v\}$ is linearly independent.
You should try to prove part $b$ by yourself. First suppose that $\text{span}(E)=V$, then conclude that $v\in \text{span}(E)$.
Then suppose that $v\in \text{span}(E)$. Use the given hypothesis that $\text{span}(E\cup \{v\})=V$ to conclude that $\text{span}(E)=V$.