Attempt:
$T^2 = 0$ if and only if for all $v \in V$ , $0 = T^2(v) = T(T(v))$ if and only if for all $v \in V , T(v) \in N(T)$ if and only if $R(T) \in N(T)$.
If the question were this instead: Let $T : V \to V$ be a linear operator for a vector space $V$. Prove that $R(T) \subset N(T)$ if and only if $T^2 = 0$, would the proof above ^ stil be fine ?
I can't see any logical distinction 'twixt the two, so both proofs look fine to me.
That being said, I would likely frame the argument something like this:
Given that
$T^2 = 0, \tag 1$
suppose
$x \in R(T); \tag 2$
then
$\exists y \in V \mid x = T(y); \tag 3$
thus
$T(x) = T^2(y) = 0 \Longrightarrow x \in N(T); \tag 4$
thus we see that
$R(T) \subset N(T); \tag 5$
now assuming (5), we have
$\forall y \in V \; T^2(y) = T(T(y)); \tag 6$
since
$T(y) \in R(T), \tag 7$
from (5) we obtain
$\forall y \in V, \; T^2(y) = T(T(y)) = 0, \tag 7$
whence
$T^2 = 0; \tag 8$