It is known that the image of a homomorphism of an abelian group is abelian (Here is a proof). I have a related conjecture.
Let $\varphi: G \to G'$ be an injective homomorphism. If $G'$ is Abelian, then $G$ is Abelian.
Proof: $$\varphi(xy)=\varphi(x)\varphi(y)=\varphi(y)\varphi(x)=\varphi(yx) \implies xy=yx$$
How do we generalize this? If we have
Let $\varphi: G \to G'$ be a surjective homomorphism. If $G$ has this property, then $G'$ has the same property.
then do we have
Let $\varphi: G \to G'$ be an injective homomorphism. If $G'$ has this property, then $G$ has the same property.
?
By the way, the context of this is Munkres Topology Lemma 60.5 and Theorem 60.6


For a given property $P$ your statements can be rewritten as:
There are lots of examples of $P$ satisfying one of the above, two or none:
(none) $P$ is "being infinite"
(only (1)) $P$ is "being finitely genarated"
(only (2)) $P$ is "being free"
(both) $P$ is "being abelian"
etc.
There is no general method to check what kind of $P$ you are dealing with. You have to check case-by-case.