This is important for me and somehow I can't think straight now so I need some help.
Suppose $a_{n,k}$ is a real double sequence and it is bounded. Is it possible to prove the claim $$ \lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \sup_{n \ge 1} a_{n, k} = \sup_{n \ge 1} \lim_{k \to \infty} a_{n,k}$$
Thanks!
Let $a_{n,k}=1$ if $k\leq n$, $a_{n,k}=0$ if $k>n$. Then $$ \sup_{n\geq 1}\lim_{k\to\infty}a_{n,k}=\sup_{n\geq 1}0=0 $$ while $$ \lim_{k\to\infty}\sup_{n\geq 1}a_{n,k}=\lim_{k\to\infty}1=1 $$