Find $$\lim_{x\to 0^{+}} \frac{\arcsin(1-\{x\})\arccos(1-\{x\})}{\sqrt{2\{x\}}(1-\{x\})}$$ where $\{\cdot\}$ stands for the fractional part function, without using the L'Hopital Rule.
Answer: $\frac{\pi}{2}$
Here's what I did:
Since $0<0^{+}<1\Rightarrow$ $$\lim_{x\to 0^{+}} \frac{\arcsin(1-\{x\})\arccos(1-\{x\})}{\sqrt{2\{x\}}(1-\{x\})}=\lim_{x\to 0^{+}} \frac{\arcsin(1-x)\arccos(1-x)}{\sqrt{2x}(1-x)}$$ This is of the form $\frac 00$. Also, $\lim_\limits{x\to 0^{+}}\frac{\arcsin(1-x)}{1-x}=\frac{\pi}{2}$. Now we are left with $\lim_\limits{x\to 0^{+}} \frac{\arccos (1-x)}{\sqrt{2x}}$.
This is the perfect moment to apply the LH rule but the question forbids it :(
Any hints on how to proceed further will be great. Thanks a lot!
Let $1-x=\cos\theta$ and we get the equivalent limit
$$\lim_{x\to0^+} \frac{\arccos(1-x)}{\sqrt{2x}} = \lim_{\theta\to 0} \frac{\arccos(\cos\theta)}{\sqrt{2-2\cos\theta}} = \lim_{\theta\to 0} \frac{|\theta|}{2\left|\sin\left(\frac{\theta}{2}\right)\right|} = 1$$