I wanted to prove $\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{\ln x}{x} =0$ by the squeeze theorem.
I know $$e^x =1+x+\frac{x^2}{2!}+\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^4}{4!}+\dots$$ by Taylor expansion, so $e^x \ge 1+x$ and thus $x \ge \ln(1+x)$ and finally, $x \ge \ln(x)$.
I also know $\ln x \ge 0$ for $x\geq 1$.
So I tried to apply the squeeze theorem $0 \le \ln x \le x$, and then dividing throughout by $x$ I get $0 \le \frac{\ln x}{x} \le 1$ and then if I apply limit $x \to \infty$, but I'm unable to apply the squeeze theorem here.
Can anybody help me understand what is it that I'm doing wrong? I do not want to use L'Hospital's theorem.
$\ln x=2 \ln x^{\frac 12}\le2\sqrt x$ (using the inequality $y\ge \ln y$ for $y\gt 0$ that you obtained.)
So it follows that: for all $x\gt 0$ $$|\frac{\ln x}x|\le2 \frac{\sqrt x}x$$
It follows by squeeze theorem that $\lim_{x\to \infty}|\frac{\ln x}x|=0.$ Now note that $-|\frac{\ln x}x|\le \frac{\ln x}x\le|\frac{\ln x}x|$ and hence the result follows by squeeze theorem.