I would like to ask why is the sequence convergent to $\dfrac{1}{2}$ when the parameter $|a|<1$ ? At the same time, I would like to ask if there is a limit for $a<-1$, because the sequence would alternate with signs.
$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a^{2n}+1}{a^n+2}$$
If $\lvert a\rvert<1,\ $ then $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} (a^{2n}+1) = 1,\ $ and $\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} (a^{n}+2) = 2,\ $ so by the product rule for limits,
$\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a^{2n}+1}{a^n+2} = \frac{1}{2}.$
If $ a=1,\ $ then $\ \displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{a^{2n}+1}{a^n+2} = \frac{2}{3}.$
If $\ a = -1,\ $ or if $\ \lvert a\rvert>1,\ $ then the limit does not converge: if $\ a=-1,\ $ the sequence alternates between $2$ and $\frac{2}{3},\ $ if $\ a > 1,\ $it diverges to $\ +\infty,\ $ and finally if $\ a<-1,\ $ the sequence diverges by alternating between increasingly large negative and large positive numbers.