
please explain why my procedure is wrong i am not able to find out?? I know the property limit of product is product of limits (provided limit exists and i think in this case limit exists for both the functions). The actual answer for the given question is $\frac{1}{2}\log(2)$. My course book has shown that don't use this step but has not given the reason. AND Please TELL why i am WRONG
The fourth line is invalid: If $F(x)$ and $G(x)$ tend to the same limit as $x\to 0,$ we cannot conclude that $(1/x^2)(F(x)-G(x))$ tends to $0.$ For example $F(x)=4 x^2+1$ and $G(x)=x^2+1$. In general, replacing the term $1/x^2$ with any $H(x)$: If $F(x)-G(x)$ and $H(x)$ tend to $0,$ then consider $J(x)=F(x)-G(x).$ We cannot determine whether $J(x)/H(x)$ has a limit, or what the limit is if it exists, just by knowing that $J$ and $H$ tend to $0.$