$$\lim_{x \to 2} \frac{\cos{\left(\frac{\pi}{x}\right)}}{x-2}$$
This limit is supposed be found without L'Hospital's Rule, but I have not been able to get close to the answer using conjugates, squares, Pythagorean Identity, half angle formulas or Squeeze Theorem. For each attempt, I expected at least one of the well-known limits $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin{x}}{x}$ or $\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\cos{x} - 1}{x}$ to come into use. They frequently did in my attempts but did not go anywhere. I have also been experimented substitutions but in vain.
How can this be solved without using L'Hospital's Rule?
This expression corresponds with the definition of the derivative. Recall that $$f'(x) = \lim\limits_{y\to x}\frac{f(y)-f(x)}{y-x}$$ Using the fact that $\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 0$, this expression turns out to be the derivative of $\cos(\frac{\pi}{x})$ at $x = 2$.
EDIT: Sorry, used the wrong function.