I want to know if I can "use" a limit after I've used L'hopital's rule on it? I'm not sure how to better word it, but I can show you what I tried, maybe you can tell me if it is right or why it is wrong. $$\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x - \frac{e^x}{x+1}$$ We can split this into two limits $$\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x - \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{e^x}{x+1}$$ Now since the limit on the right side is infinity over infinity, we can apply L'Hopital's rule
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x - \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{e^x}{1}$$ Now we can join the two limits back (I am "reusing" the limit after applying L'hopital...is this allowed?) $$\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x - e^x$$ Subtracting we have $$\lim_{x \to \infty} 0 = 0$$
No we are not allowed to do that, we need to proceed as follows
$$\lim_{x \to \infty} e^x - \frac{e^x}{x+1}=\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{xe^x}{x+1}$$
and then apply l'Hopital since the expression is in the form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$.
Recall indeed that we can apply l'Hopital$^{(*)}$ for expressions $\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ in the form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ or $\frac{0}{0}$ or also, as an extension, for the case $f(x)^{g(x)}=e^{g(x)\log(f(x))}$ when $g(x)\log(f(x))$ is in the indeterminate form $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ or $\frac{0}{0}$.
$(*)$Note
As noticed by Mark Viola, it is not necessary that the numerator approaches $\infty$ to apply l'Hopital, indeed the numerator need not even have a limit provided that the other conditions hold and the denominator approaches $\infty$ (reference wiki article).