I know that: $$\lim_{a\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+a)}{a}=1$$
But why $$\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{-\frac{2x}{e}}{\ln(1+(-\frac{2x}{e}))}$$ is 1 too?
$$\lim_{x\to 0} 1 : \frac{\ln(1+(-\frac{2x}{e}))}{-\frac{2x}{e}}=1:\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\ln(1+(-\frac{2x}{e}))}{-\frac{2x}{e}}=1:1=1$$
It's right?
Let $y=-2x/e$. Then, as $x\to 0$, $y\to 0$.
Next, we see that
$$\frac{(-2x/e)}{\log(1+(-2x/e))}=\frac{y}{\log(1+y)}=\frac{1}{\frac{\log(1+y)}{y}}$$
Hence, we can assert that
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{(-2x/e)}{\log(1+(-2x/e))}=\frac{1}{\lim_{y\to 0}\frac{\log(1+y)}{y}}=1$$
as was to be shown!