$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{4^{3x} \sin x}{3^{4x}}$$
I tried it in this way:\begin{align*} &\Rightarrow \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(\frac{4^{3}}{3^{4}}\right)^x \sin x\\ &\Rightarrow \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(\frac{64}{81}\right)^x \sin x \end{align*}
$\frac{64}{81}<1$ so we have $$\lim_{x \to \infty}(0)\times (\text{finite})=0$$
I am not sure if I did it in right way. This question came in $9$ marks I wonder why. Please correct me.
The form of your work suggests that you still have trouble understanding exactly what you're doing in that last step.
When you computed the limit of a product by plugging into the limits of the two factors, that's the actual value of the limit:
$$\begin{align*} \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(\frac{64}{81}\right)^x \sin x = 0 \cdot (\text{finite}) \end{align*} $$
Your work suggests you're still conceiving this as manipulating the quantities inside the limit, which is incorrect and often gets people in trouble; e.g. as in the following argument
$$ \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{x} \cdot x \overset{\text{not true}}{=} \lim_{x \to \infty} 0 \cdot x = \lim_{x \to \infty} 0 = 0 $$
Additionally, while it is possible to make sense of $(\mathrm{finite})$ as being a "limit" of $\sin(x)$ as $x \to \infty$, it is a somewhat awkward sort of thing and probably not something you were actually taught how to reason with.