I've been trying to solve this limit using polars and I get that it does not exist. But wolfram alpha gives a result of 1. $$ \lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{(x-y)^2}{(x^2+y^2)}$$
2026-04-12 16:56:14.1776012974
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Limit of a two variable easy function
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Note that the limit does not exist, indeed
- for $x=y=t$
$$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{(x-y)^2}{(x^2+y^2)}=\lim_{t\to0} \frac{(0)^2}{2t^2}=0$$
- for $x=-y=t$
$$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{(x-y)^2}{(x^2+y^2)}=\lim_{ t\to0} \frac{(2t)^2}{2t^2}=\lim_{ t\to0} \frac{4t^2}{2t^2}=2$$
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Using polar coordinates, which are:
$$\begin{cases} x=r\cos \theta \\ y=r\sin \theta\end{cases}$$
you get for $r>0$:
$$\frac{(x-y)^2}{x^2+y^2}=\frac{r^2(\cos\theta-\sin\theta)^2}{r^2}=(\cos\theta-\sin\theta)^2.$$
This does not have a limit as $r\to 0$, since it will give you many different values for different angles $\theta$.
Wolfram must be mistaken.
Hint
Taking the limit along the straight lines $y=mx$ will show that these limits depend on $m$, so...
$$\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{(x-y)^2}{x^2+y^2}\xrightarrow{y=mx}\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(x-mx)^2}{x^2+m^2x^2}=\frac{(1-m)^2}{1+m^2}$$
I get (link): "(limit does not exist, is path dependent, or cannot be determined)".