I want to compute the limit $f(x)$ of
$$ f(n,x)=\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k^2+1}\sin(kx) $$
and didn't succeed. I tried with the means used to compute the >>easy<< limits of trigonometric series like those listed in (e.g.) Bronstein, however, the above series is not in Bronstein. I plotted the graph with sagemath (see my post on ask.sagemath.org: https://ask.sagemath.org/question/55596/limit-of-fourier-series/). At least this suggests that f(x) exists and is not a polynomial.
Is it possible to compute the above limit and if so, how?
The limit can be expressed via hypergeometric functions as: $$\lim_{n \to \infty} f(n,x) = \\\left(\frac{1}{8}+\frac{i}{8}\right) e^{-i x} \left(\, _2F_1\left(1,1-i;2-i;e^{-i x}\right)+i \, _2F_1\left(1,1+i;2+i;e^{-i x}\right)-e^{2 i x} \left(\, _2F_1\left(1,1-i;2-i;e^{i x}\right)+i \, _2F_1\left(1,1+i;2+i;e^{i x}\right)\right)\right).$$