I have to prove that if $(x_1 \gt x_2) \Rightarrow (f(x_1) \ge f(x_2))$, then $$\forall a \in \mathbb R \exists L \in \mathbb R \lim_{x \to a^+}f(x) = L$$
I have a feeling that L = $inf_{x \in (a,a+ \delta)}f(x) = f(a)$, but I can't prove that for each $\epsilon$ I'll find $x \in (a,a+ \delta)$, $|f(x)-f(a)|\lt \epsilon$. Is my guess wrong? How should I go?
Let $L=\inf_{x> a} f(x)$.
Then given $\epsilon > 0$, we can find some $x_0>a$ such that $f(x_0)<L+\epsilon$ (because $L=\inf_{x>a}f(x)$). Then whenever $x\in (a,x_0)$, we know that $L \leq f(x) \leq f(x_0)<L+\epsilon$, and thus $|f(x)-L|<\epsilon$. Letting $\delta = x_0-a$, we see that $x \in (a,a+\delta)$ implies that $|f(x_0)-L|<\epsilon$. Thus $\lim_{x \to a^+} f(x)=L$.