I have two sequences of functions:
$$ h_n(x) = (x-\frac1n)^2 \qquad \text{for } x \in [0,1] $$
$$k_n(x) = (x-\frac1n)^2 \qquad \text{for } x \in \mathbb R $$
I need to find their limits and determine whether the convergence is uniform.
How are these two sequences different?
$h_n$ are on a compact sets, while $k_n$ are on the whole real line.
For uniform convergence, it can make a difference: the sequence $f_n(x)=x/n$ ($x\in \mathbb{R}$) converges to $f\equiv 0$ on any compact, but not uniformly since $$\sup_{x\in \mathbb{R}} |f_n(x)|\equiv +\infty \ for\ any\ n,$$ while for any compact $K$ $$ \sup_{x\in K}|f_n(x)|\leq \sup_{y\in K} |y|/n\to 0. $$ You situation is quite similar.