I'm trying to learn the derivative of $\sin x = \cos x$ and I'm a bit confused about my textbook's proof in a couple of places. Here is the text:
I don't have much issue with this first area using the longform version of derivatives by using limits:
Here is the area that I have a few issues with:
Why does the line segments $EB = EB$ ? The text replaces EB with ED during the proof.
Why does the text say: the function $(sin \theta/\theta)$ is an even function, so its right and left limits must be equal. How do they know it's even? Does this mean that when $sin \theta$ is negative, so is $\theta$?



You have asked the following questions.
1) Why does ae=ed
The answer to this question is that they did not claim or used AE=ED at all. They are using AE+ED=AD which makes perfect sense. They used EB < ED which is also true.
2) Why does the text say: the function (sinθ/θ) is an even function, so its right and left limits must be equal. How do they know it's even? Does this mean that when sinθis negative, so is θ?
Note that $ sin(-\theta )= -sin(\theta)$ and $(-\theta )=-\theta $ so the quotient $ \frac {sin \theta }{\theta }$ does not change when you change your $\theta $ to -$\theta $
Thus $ \frac {sin \theta }{\theta }$ is an even function.