The expression is : $\theta(t)$ = tan^-1 (t/500)
The derivative is(unless I'm wrong): $\theta'(t) = 1/(1+(t^2/250000))$
is that correct?
Then I'm asked to find the limit of $\theta'(t)$ when t = +-$\infty$
Is this then the correct appraoch?
$\theta'(t)$ when t = +-$\infty$
= 1/(1+$\infty$)
= 1/$\infty$
= 0.
I was first thinking of applying l'hopitals rule, but I guess since the expression is not 0/0, or $\infty$/$\infty$, that's not the way to do it?
Your answer is almost correct except the expression of $\theta'(t)$. There is a coefficient of $t$ in $\theta(t)$, so it should be $$ \theta'(t)=\mathbf{\frac{1}{500}}\cdot\frac{1}{1+t^2/250000} $$ However, it doesn't affect the result. When $t$ goes to infinity, $\theta'(t)$ does go to $0$ in the way as you said.
You're correct here.