Given $x_1 = 1, x_{n+1} = x_n + \frac{1}{x_n} (n\ge1)$, Prove whether the limit as follow exist or not. If so, find it $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{x_n}{n}$$
Given $x_1 = 1, x_{n+1} = x_n + \frac{1}{\sqrt{x_n}} (n\ge1)$, Prove whether the limit as follow exist or not. If so, find it $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{x_n}{n}$$
In both cases, $x_n$ is increasing, so I tried to get an upper bound on $x_n$ (possibly depending on $n$) to apply a squeeze theorem; but failed.
Combining the ideas in the answers given by kedrigern and N.S., we can obtain a little more general conclusion as below.
Proof: Form $(2)$ and $f'>0$ we know that $(x_n)$ is positive and increasing; in particular, $L:=\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n$ eixsts(either finite or $+\infty$). If $L<+\infty$, then by $(2)$ and continuity, $$L=\lim_{n\to\infty}x_{n+1}=\lim_{n\to\infty}x_n+\frac{1}{\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}f'(x_n)}=L+\frac{1}{f'(L)}>L,$$ a contradiction. Therefore, $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n=+\infty$.
Since $f'>0$, $f$ is increasing. Then from $(x_n)$ being increasing we know that $\big(f(x_n)\big)$ is also increasing, so by Stolz–Cesàro theorem, $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{f(x_n)}{n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\big(f(x_n)-f(x_{n-1})\big).\tag{4}$$ Denote $\delta_n=\frac{1}{f'(x_n)}$. By $(2)$ and mean value theorem, there exists $\theta_n\in (0,\delta_n)$, such that $$f(x_{n+1})-f(x_n)=f(x_n+\delta_n)-f(x_n)=f'(x_n+\theta_n)\delta_n.\tag{5}$$ Since $\lim\limits_{n\to\infty}x_n=+\infty$, by assumption (i), when $n$ is large, $\theta_n<\delta_n\le \delta$. Letting $n\to\infty$ in $(5)$, by assumption (ii), the limit exists and is $1$, so $(3)$ follows from $(4)$, which completes the proof.
Exampes: It is easy to check that for every $c>0$ and every $p\ge 1$, $f(x)=cx^p$ satisfies all the assumptions in the proposition. In particular, for your original question, we have: